Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 02:50
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Plane from Indianapolis diverted to Tulsa due to weather ahead of NBA Finals Game 1 - KOKH
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Is it safe to take a hot shower after being exposed to extremely low temperatures?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.